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Human Biology 11th Edition By Sylvia S. Mader – Test Bank
Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)Chapter 6 The Muscular System 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which one of the following statements correctly describes activities of muscles?
- A) All muscles produce movement.
- B) All muscles shorten when they contract.
- C) All muscles are under conscious control.
- D) All muscles are attached to bones.
- E) All muscles are synergistic.
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the structure of a muscle?
- A) The outer surface of a muscle is enclosed by many layers of epidermis.
- B) All muscle cells in a muscle have the same origin and insertion.
- C) Fascicles of a muscle are surrounded by a thin sheath of hyaline cartilage.
- D) Connective tissues associated with the muscle converge to form a ligament at each end of the muscle.
- E) Each fascicle consists of two muscle cells.
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the origin and insertion of a muscle?
- A) The insertion is pulled toward the origin during contraction.
- B) The origin is pulled toward the insertion during contraction.
- C) The origin of a muscle is generally distal (farther from the body’s midline) relative to the insertion.
- D) The origin and insertion refers to the growth pattern of a muscle during development.
- E) There is always a ligament at the origin of a muscle and a tendon at the insertion.
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that
- A) all cardiac muscle is under involuntary control
- B) cardiac muscle is capable of relaxation
- C) cardiac muscle contracts in response to an electrical or chemical signal
- D) cardiac muscle is excitable and can shorten
- E) cardiac muscle gets longer rather than shorter when excited
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension5) Skeletal muscle groups that work together to create the same movement are referred to as
- A) involuntary
- B) antagonistic
- C) synergistic
- D) sarcomeres
- E) myofibrils
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the fascia within the sole of the foot, resulting in foot and heel pain. What is a fascia?
- A) a bundle of muscle cells that are enclosed in a connective tissue sheath
- B) a bundle of protein filaments (thick and thin) located within muscle cells
- C) the fibrous connective tissue sheath that surrounds the fascicles of the muscle
- D) a connective tissue structure that attaches one muscle to another muscle
- E) the area where the actin and myosin filaments overlap within a muscle cell
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) In the lower leg, the gastrocnemius muscle bends the foot away from the knee, as in pointing one’s toes. The tibialis anterior muscle flexes the foot toward the knee. These two muscles are
- A) synergistic
- B) homeostatic
- C) mutualistic
- D) antagonistic
- E) cooperative
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Which sequence lists the structures from largest, most inclusive, to smallest?
- A) muscle-thick filament-fascicle-muscle fiber-myofibril
- B) muscle-fascicle-muscle fiber-myofibril-thick filament
- C) fascicle-muscle-myofibril-muscle fiber-thick filament
- D) muscle fiber-myofibril-muscle-fascicle-thick filament
- E) thick filament-fascicle-myofibril-muscle-muscle fiber
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which one of the following is found within a sarcomere?
- A) the muscle cell nuclei
- B) muscle fibers
- C) the actin and myosin filaments
- D) fascicles
- E) fascia
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension10) Contraction of a skeletal muscle cell is initiated by the
- A) release of acetylcholine by a neuron terminating at the neuromuscular junction
- B) release of calcium ions by the neuron into the neuromuscular junction
- C) electrical current traveling from the neuron directly into the muscle cell
- D) hormones delivered by the blood supply to the nearby tissue
- E) release of sodium ions by the neuron into the neuromuscular junction
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The following events are associated with muscle contraction. Which one of the following best describes the order in which these events occur, following the initiation of a contraction by a nerve impulse?
- T tubules transmit electrical impulses throughout the muscle cell.
- Myosin contacts actin and pulls it toward the center of the sarcomere.
- Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the muscle.
- Troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts to expose myosin binding sites.
- Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
- A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
- B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
- C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
- D) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
- E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) In order for a muscle contraction to occur, cross-bridges must form between which one of the following structures within a muscle cell?
- A) the plasma membrane and the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- B) troponin and tropomyosin
- C) calcium and tropomyosin
- D) acetylcholine and muscle cell receptors
- E) actin and myosin
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) All of the following are necessary for contraction to occur EXCEPT which one?
- A) Calcium levels must increase in close proximity to the contractile proteins.
- B) ATP must be present.
- C) Troponin-tropomyosin complex must shift out of the way.
- D) Cross-bridges must form between actin and myosin.
- E) The troponin and tropomysin must slide relative to each other, shortening the sarcomere.
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension14) When an electrical impulse traveling along a motor neuron arrives at a neuromuscular junction
- A) there is an increase in the secretion of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
- B) calcium is transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- C) sliding of actin and myosin filaments is inhibited
- D) myosin-actin cross-bridges are destroyed
- E) a new electrical impulse is generated that returns the message to the original nerve
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) An individual with the condition of myasthenia gravis is faced with an autoimmune disorder in which the body defenses attack acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells. What would be the expected effect on calcium levels near contractile proteins, following the arrival of an electrical impulse at those neuromuscular junctions?
- A) a rapid decrease in concentration due to uptake by sarcoplasmic reticulum
- B) a rapid increase in concentration due to release by sarcoplasmic reticulum
- C) small or no increases in concentration due to weak responses by acetylcholine receptors
- D) a large decrease in concentration that occurs slowly
- E) a large increase in concentration that occurs slowly
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Application/Analysis 16) The primary energy source used by muscle cells to generate ATP is
- A) steroids
- B) glycogen
- C) glucose
- D) starch
- E) fatty acids
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Once a muscle cell has depleted its small supply of ready-made ATP, what will it use next for energy?
- A) fats
- B) phospholipids
- C) proteins
- D) creatine phosphate
- E) glycogen
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension18) Which one of the following is the most efficient long-term source of ATP for muscle cells?
- A) creatine phosphate
- B) ready-made ATP in the cell
- C) aerobic respiration of glucose
- D) fermentation of glucose
- E) aerobic respiration of proteins
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Muscle cells produce lactic acid when they have an inadequate supply of
- A) protein
- B) O2
- C) calcium
- D) actin and myosin
- E) glycogen
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Application/Analysis 20) As part of your fitness training, you do biceps curls lifting two 10-lb weights. The muscle contractions enabling these movements are
- A) isometric contractions
- B) tetanic contractions
- C) isotonic contractions
- D) tendon-mediated contractions
- E) ligament-mediated contractions
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Application/Analysis 21) During a marathon, runners use up ATP and glucose early in the race. Which energy source is generally used next for producing more ATP?
- A) glycogen
- B) starch
- C) cellulose
- D) steroids
- E) phospholipids
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) At the end of the contractile period, energy from the breakdown of ATP is used to
- A) transport calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- B) repair any muscle damaged during contraction
- C) digest energy sources to generate new ATP for the next round of contractions
- D) produce lactic acid
- E) unlink the troponin-tropomyosin complexes
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension23) T, or transverse, tubes in skeletal muscle function to
- A) transport calcium ions throughout muscle cells
- B) allow actin and myosin filaments to slide over each other
- C) promote the rapid penetration of the electrical impulse deep into the cell
- D) help decrease the amount of ATP produced
- E) convert glucose to lactic acid, which helps muscles relax
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which one of the following is characteristic of an isotonic muscle contraction but not an isometric muscle contraction?
- A) generates a force
- B) moves an object or part of the skeleton
- C) helps an individual maintain an upright position
- D) requires energy
- E) helps an individual maintain posture
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which one of the following is an example of an isometric contraction?
- A) person lifting books from the floor
- B) tightening of abdominal muscles while sitting
- C) kicking a soccer ball
- D) swinging a golf club
- E) doing abdominal “crunches” (sit-ups)
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Following intense exercise, the human body attempts to overcome oxygen debt by
- A) sweating
- B) elevating heart rate
- C) producing ATP
- D) taking deep breaths
- E) inhibiting contractions of smooth muscle
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Following electrical stimulation of a muscle cell, calcium functions to
- A) stimulate the enzymes that produce ATP
- B) bind to the protein troponin
- C) leak out of the muscle cell to re-establish the membrane potential
- D) break down acetylcholine
- E) maintain the relaxed state of the muscle
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension28) A myogram is a recording of
- A) the electrical activity of muscle cells
- B) the electrical activity of nerves at neuromuscular junctions
- C) the activity of muscle cells
- D) blood pressure changes resulting from muscle contraction
- E) the movement of myosin filaments
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) In which one of the following would one expect to find motor units made up of only a few muscle cells?
- A) arm muscles
- B) eye muscles
- C) chest muscles
- D) thigh muscles
- E) lower-leg muscles
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Application/Analysis 30) All of the following occur during the latent period of muscle contraction EXCEPT which one?
- A) Myofibrils shorten.
- B) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
- C) Muscle cell membrane initiates an electrical impulse, which travels into the muscle cell.
- D) Myosin heads bind to actin filaments.
- E) Troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts, exposing myosin heads.
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which one of the following activities would fast-twitch fibers be most useful for?
- A) distance running
- B) swimming
- C) lifting weights
- D) biking
- E) cross-country skiing
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension32) In comparing smooth and cardiac muscle, which one of the following best describes the differences between the two muscle types?
- A) Smooth muscle is voluntary, whereas cardiac is involuntary.
- B) Both lack muscle filaments, but cardiac muscle has sarcomeres.
- C) Cardiac muscle requires periods of relaxation, whereas smooth muscle is always in a state of partial contraction.
- D) Cardiac muscle filaments are arranged in bundles, whereas smooth muscles lack filament bundles.
- E) Cardiac muscle contracts slowly compared to smooth muscle.
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Which one of the following is characteristic of cardiac and smooth muscle, but not skeletal muscle?
- A) voluntary contraction
- B) striated appearance
- C) presence of gap junctions
- D) presence of actin and myosin in muscle cells
- E) contraction is initiated by motor neurons
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) In comparing all three major muscle types, which one of the following statements best describes the differences between them?
- A) Cardiac muscle can be stimulated only by nerves, whereas smooth and skeletal muscle contract spontaneously.
- B) Smooth and skeletal muscles appear striated, due to the arrangement of muscle filaments, whereas cardiac muscles lack these filaments.
- C) Only cardiac muscle is under voluntary control.
- D) Smooth and cardiac muscle do not fatigue, whereas skeletal does fatigue.
- E) Gap junctions are present in skeletal muscles, but not in other types of muscle.
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Intercalated discs
- A) are characteristic of smooth muscle cells
- B) contain gap junctions that allow the signal to spread quickly through cardiac muscle cells
- C) support fast-twitch fibers of skeletal muscle
- D) stimulate pacemaker cells in cardiac muscle
- E) stimulate the contraction of skeletal muscle
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6.2 True/False Questions 1) Muscle cells are located in every organ in the body except the stomach and are essential for any activity that requires movement.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.0Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Muscles constitute 60-70% of our body mass.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.0Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Muscle contraction accounts for over 75% of the heat generated by the body.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) In skeletal muscle, potassium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) The heads of myosin molecules contact the actin filaments when a muscle is relaxed.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) According to the sliding filament mechanism, during a muscle contraction, myosin pulls actin filaments toward the center of a sarcomere, causing the entire sarcomere to shorten.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Fast-twitch fibers contain large amounts of myoglobin and predominate in “red” muscle.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Slow-twitch fibers contain many mitochondria and are well supplied with blood vessels, and can make ATP as they need it.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Isometric contractions usually result in no movement of the skeleton or objects.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension10) The “all-or-none principle” states that in a given muscle, all of the cells are contracting simultaneously or none of them is contracting.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Tetanus results from a state of maximum muscle relaxation, which is necessary to allow the muscle to rest before the next contraction.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) In the absence of ATP, a contracted muscle can’t relax.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Following running for a long distance, the muscle soreness that occurs the next day is due to chemicals released to repair damaged muscles.Answer: TRUETopic: Health & WellnessSkill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Muscles of the hand contain a high percentage of fast-twitch fibers, which allows for actions that are strong and quick.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle do not respond at all to the nervous system, but contract on their own. Differences in the rate of contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle are due to the action of pacemakers in cardiac muscles.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Muscle soreness several days after exercise is an indication that some sarcomeres were permanently damaged.Answer: TRUETopic: Health & WellnessSkill: Knowledge/Comprehension6.3 Matching Questions Match each disorder or disease of the muscular system with its description.
- A) muscular dystrophy
- B) fasciitis
- C) tetanus
- D) muscle cramps
1) inflammation of the connective tissue layers surrounding a muscle; common in the sole of the footTopic: Sec. 6.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) a group of muscular diseases that are hereditary; resulting in muscle wasting; no cureTopic: Sec. 6.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) disease caused by a bacterial infection; bacterial toxin affects primarily the muscles of the jaw and neck; also known as “lockjaw”Topic: Sec. 6.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) uncontrolled contraction of muscle, usually after heavy exerciseTopic: Sec. 6.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D Match the following.
- A) fatigue
- B) contraction
- C) twitch
- D) intercalated discs
- E) latent period
- F) slow-twitch fibers
- G) relaxation
- H) recruitment
- I) fast-twitch fibers
5) Sarcomere lengthens as calcium is returned to sarcoplasmic reticulum, and the troponin-tropomyosin complex attaches to myosin binding sites on actin.Topic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) time between the stimulation of a muscle and the beginning of a muscle contractionTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension7) Actin filaments slide over myosin filaments, and the sarcomere shortens.Topic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) aerobically break down fatty acids and glucoseTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) contain gap junctions that permit rapid electrical stimulation of muscle cellsTopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) anaerobically break down creatine phosphateTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) decline in muscle activity as ATP levels decreaseTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Understanding 12) complete cycle of contraction and relaxationTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) increases muscle force by activating more motor unitsTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 5) G 6) E 7) B 8) F 9) D 10) I 11) A 12) C 13) H Using the figure above, identify the parts of the sarcomere.
- A) sarcomere
- B) actin filament
- C) myosin filament
- D) Z-line
14) Label A represents a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Label B represents a(n) ________Topic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Label C represents a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Label D represents a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) B Match the following muscles to their function.
- A) quadriceps
- B) gastrocnemius
- C) external oblique
- D) biceps brachii
- E) triceps brachii
- F) trapezius
- G) tibialis anterior
- H) deltoid
18) bends forearm at elbowTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) causes lateral rotation of the trunk and abdominal compressionTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) flexes thigh at the hip; extends leg at kneeTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) flexes foot toward kneeTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) raises armTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) lifts and braces shoulders; draws head backTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) extends forearm at elbowTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) bends lower leg at knee and foot away from ankleTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) G 22) H 23) F 24) E 25) BUsing the figure above and labels T through Z below, identify the structures indicated.
- A) fascicle
- B) muscle fiber
- C) tendon
- D) whole muscle
26) Structure A is a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Structure B is a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) Structure C is a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Structure D is a(n) ________.Topic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) D 6.4 Short Answer Questions 1) We are unable to exert any conscious control over the contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle. These muscles are referred to as ________ muscle.Answer: involuntaryTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Since contraction of the hamstrings causes the knee to bend and contraction of the quadriceps causes the knee to extend, these muscles are said to be ________.Answer: antagonisticTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension3) A muscle is arranged in bundles of muscle fibers, called ________.Answer: fasciclesTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The contractile proteins that are located in myofibrils are called ________ and ________.Answer: actin, myosinTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) The portion of a myofibril from one Z-line to the next is a(n) ________.Answer: sarcomereTopic: Sec. 6.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The region where a skeletal muscle cell and a motor neuron come into close proximity to one another is the ________.Answer: neuromuscular junctionTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Contraction of skeletal muscle is caused by the release of neurotransmitters from ________ neurons.Answer: motorTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The neurotransmitter, ________, has an excitatory effect on skeletal muscle, causing it to contract.Answer: acetylcholineTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) The electrical impulse generated by a muscle cell membrane is transmitted to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by ________.Answer: T (transverse) tubulesTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) In the absence of calcium, myosin cannot contact actin because of the presence of the ________ covering the myosin binding sites on actin.Answer: troponin-tropomyosin complexTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) To minimize muscle stiffness and soreness, undertake a new exercise activity in ________ for the first few days.Answer: moderationTopic: Health & WellnessSkill: Knowledge/Comprehension12) In order for fast-twitch muscle fibers to produce ATP, a phosphate from the high-energy molecule ________ is transferred to ADP.Answer: creatine phosphateTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Application/Analysis 13) A student, who was late for class, bounded up four flights of steps, ran down the hall, and then arrived in his classroom, huffing and puffing. This student was breathing hard in order to reverse his body’s ________.Answer: oxygen debtTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Application/Analysis 14) During a workout session, you may begin to experience a burning sensation in a muscle group that you are targeting with your choice of exercises. This is most likely due to anaerobic metabolism in that muscle, generating ________.Answer: lactic acidTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Application/Analysis 15) The most common reason for muscle fatigue is the lack of enough ________ to meet the metabolic demands placed on the muscle.Answer: ATPTopic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) A protein that stores oxygen in slow-twitch muscle fibers is ________.Answer: myoglobinTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) The process of activating more motor units when more force must be exerted is called ________.Answer: recruitmentTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The ability to maintain an upright position is due to ________ muscle contractions.Answer: isometricTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) As the rate of stimulation of motor units of a muscle increases, muscle force increases. This process is known as ________.Answer: summationTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The mechanical force that is generated when a muscle contracts is known as ________.Answer: muscle tensionTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension21) According to the ________ principle, a muscle cell contracts completely when adequately stimulated by a motor neuron.Answer: all-or-noneTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Activities associated with aerobic training result in an increase in the amount of ________ in the body.Answer: oxygenTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) A complete cycle of contraction and relaxation of muscle cells due to stimulation by a motor neuron is called a muscle ________.Answer: twitchTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) The swinging of a tennis racket is a brief, high-intensity activity that requires the contraction of ________ fibers.Answer: fast-twitchTopic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Cells in cardiac muscle that determine the rate of contraction are ________ cells.Answer: pacemakerTopic: Sec. 6.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6.5 Essay Questions 1) What is the role of calcium ions during contraction of a skeletal muscle?Answer: At rest, calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Once the muscle cells have been stimulated or excited, calcium ions are released into the area of the contractile proteins. The ions bind to troponin, which results in a shift in position of the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This is necessary to expose the myosin binding sites on the actin molecule. Once exposed, the myosin heads can bind to the actin and cause the filaments to slide relative to each other, shortening the sarcomere.Topic: Sec. 6.2Skill: Understanding 2) If your goal was to become an endurance athlete, what type of training should you select, and why, to increase performance?Answer: An endurance athlete depends on muscle efficiency to achieve increased performance and to complete a long-duration activity. The muscle fibers most useful to endurance events are slow-twitch. Aerobic training is needed, that is, activities that promote increased intake of oxygen to meet the muscle’s increased oxygen demands.Topic: Sec. 6.3Skill: Application/Analysis Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)Chapter 7 Blood 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are ways in which blood functions to maintain homeostasis in the human body EXCEPT which one?
- A) moving carbon dioxide away from cells following completion of aerobic metabolism
- B) conducting action potentials that originate in the nervous system to help with cell-cell communication
- C) transporting amino acids and other nutrients derived from digestion to all tissues in the body
- D) transporting hormones and other chemical messengers throughout the body from their point of secretion to their targets
- E) regulating the pH of body fluids
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) About 55% of whole blood is ________, which is/are mostly made up of water.
- A) plasma
- B) hemoglobin
- C) white blood cells
- D) clotting proteins
- E) hematocrit
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Albumin proteins in human blood function
- A) to initiate blood clotting
- B) to transport oxygen to target cells
- C) to maintain blood volume
- D) as electrolytes
- E) to attack foreign organisms that enter the blood
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Albumin, alpha globulin, beta globulin, and gamma globulin are all examples of
- A) plasma proteins
- B) antibodies
- C) white blood cells
- D) clotting factors
- E) hormones
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension5) When oxygen availability drops, certain cells in the kidney respond by producing erythropoietin, which in turn stimulates an increase in red blood cells. This cellular response represents
- A) the clotting mechanism
- B) negative feedback
- C) positive feedback
- D) all-or-none response
- E) aerobic metabolism
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which one of the following is a component of blood plasma?
- A) collagen
- B) hemoglobin
- C) bone
- D) water
- E) mitochondria
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) When the hormone erythropoietin is released in response to low oxygen levels, where is it transported to stimulate red blood cell production?
- A) kidney
- B) spleen
- C) red bone marrow
- D) liver
- E) throughout plasma
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) An increased risk for cardiovascular health problems is associated with
- A) an elevated level of hemoglobin
- B) high blood levels of HDLs
- C) decreased production of albumins
- D) high blood levels of LDLs
- E) low blood levels of LDLs
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which one of the following population of cells is most markedly increased during bacterial infections?
- A) neutrophils
- B) red blood cells
- C) platelets
- D) lymphocytes
- E) monocytes
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Histamine is released from which one of the following types of leukocyte to stimulate the inflammatory response?
- A) lymphocyte
- B) basophil
- C) eosinophil
- D) neutrophil
- E) monocyte
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) A damaged red blood cell is removed from circulation by
- A) phagocytosis by macrophages in the spleen
- B) basophils releasing histamine to stimulate breakdown of RBCs
- C) returning to red bone marrow and autolysing
- D) being actively transported into macrophages in the liver and spleen
- E) endocytosis directed by monocytes
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Unlike white blood cells, red blood cells lose their ________ and ________ as they mature.
- A) nucleus, organelles
- B) nucleus, ATP
- C) organelles, plasma membrane
- D) nucleolus, cytoplasm
- E) flexibility, shape
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) A scientist is interested in doing a research project on hemoglobin. From which one of the following could he extract the hemoglobin for his study?
- A) globulins
- B) white blood cells
- C) platelets
- D) clotting proteins
- E) red blood cells
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis14) Removal of the heme group from hemoglobin would result in
- A) red blood cells not being able to reproduce
- B) white blood cells not being able to reproduce
- C) an inability for blood to clot
- D) red blood cells not being able to bind oxygen
- E) an inability of the spleen to remove worn-out red blood cells from circulation
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis 15) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding deoxyhemoglobin?
- A) Deoxyhemoglobin delivers oxygen to tissues that have a high oxygen demand.
- B) Deoxyhemoglobin has a bright red color.
- C) Deoxyhemoglobin found in blood returning to the heart from the lower extremities.
- D) Deoxyhemoglobin would form in organs with a high concentration of oxygen, such as the lungs.
- E) Deoxyhemoglobin is located in white blood cells, unlike oxyhemoglobin.
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) A researcher wants to produce antibodies by growing cells in the laboratory. What cell population would be necessary to accomplish this?
- A) neutrophils
- B) monocytes
- C) red blood cells
- D) lymphocytes
- E) eosinophils
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis 17) When a blood vessel gets damaged, contractions of smooth muscle referred to as ________ help constrict the vessel to reduce blood flow.
- A) vascular spasms
- B) hemostasis
- C) homeostasis
- D) formed elements
- E) endocytosis
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension18) During the formation of a blood clot, conversion of prothrombin into the enzyme thrombin requires
- A) mitochondria
- B) transport of proteins from platelets
- C) calcium ions
- D) leukocytes
- E) albumin
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the “recycling” of hemoglobin?
- A) The peptide chains are broken down into their constituent fatty acids.
- B) The iron atoms are returned to the red bone marrow.
- C) The heme groups are converted to urine by the kidneys.
- D) The peptide chains are transported intact to the bone marrow for reuse.
- E) The heme groups with their iron atoms are transported to the spleen.
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) A high hematocrit might indicate
- A) anemia
- B) too many white blood cells in circulation
- C) inadequate red blood cell production
- D) excessive production of platelets
- E) polycythemia
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Blood doping, practiced by many athletes involved in the Tour de France as well as other sports, involves the illegal use of drugs to
- A) increase circulation
- B) increase the amount of oxygen carried in blood
- C) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in blood
- D) elevate the rate of hemostasis
- E) increase red bone marrow production
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) As an erythroblast develops into an erythrocyte, it
- A) becomes filled with clotting proteins
- B) begins to manufacture platelets
- C) loses its ability to reproduce
- D) takes on the characteristics of an immature monocyte
- E) undergoes active aerobic metabolism
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension23) Foreign cells that enter human body have unique cell surface proteins, known as ________, which stimulate body’s defense to attack.
- A) leukocytes
- B) Rh factors
- C) antibodies
- D) platelets
- E) antigens
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Dead and injured white blood cells are removed from circulation by the
- A) spleen
- B) tonsils
- C) red bone marrow
- D) kidney
- E) thymus
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which one of the following components of blood increase in number in response to the presence of an infectious agent?
- A) clotting factors
- B) albumins
- C) white blood cells
- D) red blood cells
- E) platelets
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) The inflammatory response is initiated by the release of ________ from basophils.
- A) histamine
- B) hemoglobin
- C) clotting factors
- D) granulosen
- E) erythropoietin
Answer: ATopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Blood displays a bright red color when
- A) oxygen is released by hemoglobin as blood travels through capillaries
- B) four oxygen molecules bind to hemoglobin to create oxyhemoglobin
- C) plasma albumin levels increase as blood goes through the lungs
- D) carbon dioxide binds to the heme group of hemoglobin
- E) deoxyhemoglobin is formed in blood plasma
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension28) Eosinophils are especially important in defending the human body from infection by
- A) bacteria
- B) viruses
- C) molds
- D) large parasites
- E) any type of microorganism
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Which one of the following types of white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis?
- A) eosinophils
- B) basophils
- C) neutrophils
- D) B lymphocytes
- E) both eosinophils and B lymphocytes
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Which one of the following formed element in the blood is not a cell, but actually a fragment of a cell?
- A) monocyte
- B) lymphocyte
- C) neutrophil
- D) platelet
- E) plasma
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which one of the following occurs first in the process of hemostasis?
- A) blood clotting
- B) production of fibrin
- C) formation of a platelet plug
- D) vascular spasm
- E) destruction of calcium ions
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which one of the following is directly involved in the process of blood clotting?
- A) sodium ions
- B) antigen
- C) fibrin
- D) clotting factor XX
- E) globulins
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Donating blood in the United States
- A) requires that the donor be at least age 17
- B) involves a rigorous physical examination
- C) though beneficial, may take several hours to complete
- D) depends on donors with no prior sexual history
- E) is easy and painless and many donors are allowed to give 5-10 units at a time
Answer: ATopic: Health & WellnessSkill: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) A physician finds that one of his patients has the following problems: Blood clots very slowly or not at all, and severe bruises result from even the most minor bumps. Which one of the following conditions would likely be diagnosed based on this information?
- A) polycythemia
- B) hemophilia
- C) AIDS
- D) anemia
- E) mononucleosis
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Application/Analysis 35) Which one of the following is a human blood type?
- A) E+
- B) B-
- C) ABO-
- D) Rh
- E) Rh+
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) If an individual is O+, which of the following antigens are on the surface of his or her red blood cells?
- A) O and Rh
- B) A, B, and Rh
- C) Rh
- D) O
- E) A and B
Answer: CTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Application/Analysis 37) Which one of the following blood types can a person with blood type B safely receive in a blood transfusion?
- A) A
- B) B
- C) AB
- D) O
- E) B and O
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Application/Analysis 38) Results of an ABO blood typing indicate agglutination reactions when anti-A and anti-B are added to the blood sample. The blood type of the individual would therefore be
- A) A
- B) B
- C) O
- D) AB
- E) not enough information given to determine blood type
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Application/Analysis 39) Hemolytic disease of the newborn could result from which one of the following situations?
- A) mother is Rh+; fetus is Rh-
- B) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh+
- C) mother is Rh+; fetus is Rh+
- D) mother is Rh-; fetus is Rh-
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Application/Analysis 40) The development of a blood substitute would be welcomed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT which one?
- A) Human blood may carry and transmit infectious agents.
- B) Human blood storage requires refrigeration, which might not be available in developing countries.
- C) The supply of donated human blood generally can’t keep up with the demand.
- D) Transfused blood rarely persists for more than a few days in the recipient.
- E) Typing and cross-matching is necessary with human blood, and the right type may not be available.
Answer: DTopic: Sec. 7.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Based on information in the figure above, why do individuals with kidney disease sometimes become anemic?
- A) The diseased kidneys destroy circulating red blood cells.
- B) The diseased kidneys do not secrete adequate erythropoietin.
- C) Excessive red blood cells are lost in the urine due to leaky filtration in the diseased kidneys.
- D) Kidney disease spreads to the bones and interferes with red blood cell production.
Answer: BTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Application/Analysis 42) The Epstein-Barr virus can induce a contagious infection of lymphocytes referred to as
- A) toxemia
- B) septicemia
- C) leukemia
- D) anemia
- E) mononucleosis
Answer: ETopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7.2 True/False Questions 1) The circulatory and lymphatic systems both serve major transport functions in the body, with contents of the lymphatic system essentially derived from the circulatory system.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.0Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The circulatory system’s main function is to help maintain homeostasis of body fluids.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.0Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Platelets function to engulf foreign cells by phagocytosis.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) “Blood is thicker than water” is a true statement since blood contains many components that are denser than water and the plasma is quite viscous.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) When drugs such as penicillin are transported in the blood, they are attached to globulins, a type of specialized hemoglobin molecule.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) If a person were to stay at high altitudes for a long period of time, his hematocrit would increase in order to compensate for the decrease in the amount of oxygen in the air he is breathing.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis 7) Hemoglobin binds oxygen most efficiently in areas of the body where the pH is low and the concentration of carbon dioxide is high.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) Erythropoietin is a hormone secreted by the spleen that results in an increased production of red blood cells.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension9) Calcium must activate prothrombin to its enzyme form before it can participate in the clotting mechanism.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Unlike red blood cells, white blood cells are capable of leaving blood vessels to enter the tissue fluid between cells.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Most lipids need to be attached to transport proteins to move through blood.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Oxygen, but not carbon dioxide, can bind to the heme group of hemoglobin.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) It is now possible for parents to bank the umbilical cord blood of their children; the cells in the cord would then be available for use later in the life of the child to treat a genetic disorder or cancer, should it develop.Answer: TRUETopic: Current IssueSkill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Mature red blood cells have no nucleus or mitochondria.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) An athlete participating in blood doping would be expected to have a low hematocrit.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis 16) An individual with hemophilia generally lacks or has very low numbers of platelets.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Most of the time, Rh incompatibility between mother (Rh-) and fetus (Rh+) doesn’t cause fetal health problems with the woman’s first pregnancy.Answer: TRUETopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension18) Blood substitutes currently being investigated focus on the oxygen-carrying capability of the substitutes as well as their ability to provide defenses similar to those of white blood cells.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.4Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Blood poisoning (septicemia) is typically treated with transfusions.Answer: FALSETopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7.3 Matching Questions Determine whether each of the following functions of blood is associated with a component of the blood plasma, the formed elements, or both.
- A) formed elements
- B) both blood plasma and formed elements
- C) blood plasma
1) transport of lipidsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) blood clottingTopic: Sec. 7.1, 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) transport of carbon dioxideTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) fighting infectionTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) transport of ureaTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) transport of most of the oxygenTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) A Match each of the following white blood cells to its description(s). Answers may be used more than once.
- A) neutrophil
- B) T lymphocyte
- C) B lymphocyte
- D) eosinophil, neutrophil, and basophil
- E) macrophage
- F) basophil
- G) monocyte
- H) eosinophil
7) leukocyte that releases histamineTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension8) mature from a myeloblastTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) white blood cell that leaves the blood and becomes a macrophageTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) the first white blood cell to combat an infectionTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) functions to phagocytize worn-out or damaged red blood cellsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) gives rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodiesTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) an agranulocyte that targets and then destroys cancer cells and viral-infected cellsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) protects the body from parasitic infectionsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) the most abundant type of white blood cellTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) the primary cell population attacked by HIVTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 7) F 8) D 9) G 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) B 14) H 15) A 16) B Match each of the following conditions with its description.
- A) leukemia
- B) thrombocytopenia
- C) anemia
- D) mononucleosis
- E) polycythemia
- F) multiple myeloma
17) a condition caused by a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood; may be diagnosed by a low hematocritTopic: Sec. 7.1, 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) a blood cancer characterized by overproduction of abnormal or immature white blood cellsTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) a viral infection of lymphocytes in blood and lymph tissuesTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) a disorder of the bone marrow, resulting in an unusually large number of red blood cellsTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) disorder characterized by bruising and bleeding due to an inadequate number of plateletsTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) a type of blood cancer characterized by uncontrolled production of abnormal plasma cellsTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Answers: 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) E 21) B 22) F 7.4 Short Answer Questions 1) In addition to the circulatory system, the ________ system is also characterized by possessing a series of fluid-filled vessels.Answer: lymphaticTopic: Sec. 7.0Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Nutrients are absorbed into the blood from the ________ system.Answer: digestiveTopic: Sec. 7.0Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The largest group of solutes in plasma is made up of ________.Answer: plasma proteinsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) The fluid portion of blood is known as blood ________; this portion constitutes approximately ________ % of the total blood volume.Answer: plasma, 55Topic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Using the figure above, answer the following questions. 5) The blood component indicated by A is the ________.Answer: plasmaTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The blood components in B include ________ and ________.Answer: platelets, white blood cells (answers may go in any order)Topic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension7) The blood components in C are the ________.Answer: red blood cellsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) The osmotic balance between blood and interstitial fluid is maintained by plasma proteins called ________.Answer: albuminsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Monocytes can mature into ________, which are phagocytic cells.Answer: macrophagesTopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Hemoglobin is most likely to release oxygen to tissues when the pH of tissues is ________ and the temperature is ________.Answer: low, highTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis 11) Cells located in red bone marrow that give rise to platelets, red blood cells, and white blood cells are called ________ cells.Answer: stemTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) The percentage of red blood cells compared to blood volume is known as the ________.Answer: hematocritTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) The hormone ________, secreted by the ________, stimulates the production of red blood cells when the level of oxygen in the body decreases.Answer: erythropoietin, kidneyTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) The color changes associated with a healing bruise can be attributed to the breakdown of heme groups to ________.Answer: bilirubinTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) The practice by which athletes abuse commercial erythropoietin by injecting it to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is known as ________.Answer: blood dopingTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension16) T lymphocytes mature in the ________.Answer: thymus glandTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Granular and agranular describe types of ________ blood cells.Answer: whiteTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) The swelling, itching, and redness associated with injury to a tissue are known as ________.Answer: inflammationTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Platelets are pieces of ________.Answer: megakaryocytesTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) The process by which certain white blood cells can engulf disease-causing organisms and digest them is ________.Answer: phagocytosisTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Fragments of cells that are important in blood clotting are called ________.Answer: plateletsTopic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Vascular spasm, formation of a platelet plug, and coagulation are the three stages of ________.Answer: hemostasisTopic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Cell surface proteins that are foreign to the body and therefore cause a response from the immune system are known as ________.Answer: antigensTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Proteins produced by the immune system in response to the presence of an antigen are known as ________.Answer: antibodiesTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension25) In order to be certain that blood transfusions are as safe as possible, medical laboratories not only conduct blood typing, but also ________.Answer: cross-matchingTopic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) In order to prevent the onset of hemolytic disease of the newborn, an Rh- woman who is pregnant with an Rh+ child can be given ________ during pregnancy.Answer: Rh antibodies (RhoGAM)Topic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) The type of anemia that results from a deficiency of vitamin B12 is ________; the type of anemia that results from extreme blood loss is ________.Answer: pernicious anemia, hemorrhagic anemiaTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) A condition resulting from a reduction in the number of platelets in the blood is ________.Answer: thrombocytopeniaTopic: Sec. 7.5Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7.5 Essay Questions 1) Individuals involved in relatively minor accidents may suffer cuts and bruises, but generally do not suffer from excessive blood loss. What features does blood posses that limit blood loss during minor accidents?Answer: Blood loss can be limited by a process known as hemostasis. Hemostasis relies on vascular spasms, or muscular contractions of blood vessels in the region of the damage, formation of a platelet plug at the site of the damage to a blood vessel, and a multistage process of blood clot formation. Once blood loss is stopped, the blood vessels can be repaired, and blood volume returns to normal levels.Topic: Sec. 7.2Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Humans may have one of four different blood types—A, B, AB, or O. Explain why a person with type O blood is referred to as the “universal donor,” yet can receive blood only from other individuals with type O blood.Answer: Like other cells in the body, red blood cells have surface proteins referred to as antigens. These antigens can be different and have been designated as A or B. The human body produces antibodies against any cell protein that is not self, or from its body. Therefore, if a person has type A antigens on his or her red blood cells, the person’s body is producing antibodies against B antigens. Type O blood has neither A or B antigens, and therefore can be donated to anyone with any blood type. However, the type O person produces antibodies against the antigens he or she lacks, which are A and B. Consequently, a person with type O blood can receive blood only from another type O individual.Topic: Sec. 7.3Skill: Application/Analysis3) If red bone marrow can be surgically removed from an individual, what would happen to that person in terms of the formed elements of the blood?Answer: Red bone marrow produces stem cells, which are cells that have not matured or differentiated and that give rise to other cell types. The stem cells from bone marrow give rise to all red and white blood cells and platelets. If red bone marrow did not function properly or was removed, stem cells would not be produced, and therefore neither would any of the essential cells known as formed elements.Topic: Sec. 7.1Skill: Application/Analysis