TEST BANK ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY THE UNITY OF FORM AND FUNCTION 7TH ED BY SALADIN | INSTANT DOWNLOAD AFTER PURCHASED

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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY THE UNITY OF FORM AND FUNCTION 7TH ED BY SALADIN – TEST BANK

Chapter 06

The Integumentary System

 

 

 

True / False Questions

 

1. The skin carries out the first step in the synthesis of vitamin D.

 

 

 

2. Living keratinocytes exfoliate from the epidermis as tiny specks called dander.

 

 

 

3. The deeper of the two layers of the skin is the hypodermis.

 

4. The youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale.

 

5. Melanin, hemoglobin, and carotene give color to the skin.

 

6. Albinism is the genetic lack of melanin that results in a milky white coloration of the skin.

 

7. Embarrassment can be perceived by an abnormal coloration of the skin called cyanosis.

 

8. Freckles are elevated patches with an abnormal coloration of the skin.

 

 

 

9. Straight hair is round, wavy hair is oval, and curly hair is relatively flat.

 

10. Hair and nails are composed of collagen.

 

11. Merocrine sweat glands are associated with hair follicles in the pubic and anal regions, axilla, areola, and beard.

 

 

 

12. Pattern baldness is relatively rare in women because women have lower testosterone levels than men.

 

13. The acidity of sweat contributes to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth in the skin.

 

14. Debridement is not necessary to infection control.

 

15. The three forms of skin cancer are defined by the types of cells from which they originate.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

16. Which of the following is not part of the skin?
17. Epidermis
18. Papillary layer
19. Hypodermis
20. Stratum basale
21. Dermis

 

 

 

 

17. Which of the following is not found in the epidermis?
18. Melanocytes
19. Fibroblasts
20. Stem cells
21. Keratinocytes
22. Tactile cells

 

 

 

18. Skin covering the __________ has sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands.
19. forearm
20. buttocks
21. abdomen
22. fingertips
23. back

 

 

 

 

19. Most of the skin is __________ mm thick.
20. 0.01 to 0.02
21. 0.1 to 0.2
22. 1 to 2
23. 10 to 20
24. 100 to 200

 

 

 

20. In which of the following skin layers would a subcutaneous injection be administered?
21. Stratum basale
22. Stratum spinosum
23. Stratum corneum
24. Dermis
25. Hypodermis

 

 

 

 

21. Which of the skin layers below is the most superficial?
22. Basal lamina
23. Epidermis
24. Papillary layer
25. Reticular layer
26. Hypodermis

 

 

 

22. Which of the following best describes the composition of the dermis?
23. Collagen and living keratinocytes
24. Collagen and dead keratinocytes
25. Collagen and fibroblasts
26. Elastic fibers and melanocytes
27. Elastic fibers and dendritic cells

 

 

 

 

23. What type of tissue is found in the most superficial layer of skin?
24. Simple squamous epithelium
25. Stratified squamous epithelium
26. Dense irregular connective tissue
27. Areolar connective tissue
28. Dense regular connective tissue

 

 

 

24. Looking at a slide of thin skin under the microscope, you note that the stratum basale is the __________ layer of the epidermis in from the surface.
25. second
26. third
27. first
28. fifth
29. fourth

 

 

 

 

25. Which of the following cells is largely responsible for skin color?
26. Dendritic cell
27. Keratinocyte
28. Melanocyte
29. Merkel cell
30. Dead keratinocyte

 

 

 

26. Which layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells?
27. Stratum basale
28. Stratum spinosum
29. Stratum granulosum
30. Stratum lucidum
31. Stratum corneum

 

 

27. Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?
28. Fibroblasts
29. Melanocytes
30. Keratinocytes
31. Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
32. Tactile (Merkel) cells

 

 

 

28. The fastest rate of mitosis happens in the __________.
29. stratum basale
30. stratum spinosum
31. stratum granulosum
32. stratum lucidum
33. stratum corneum

 

 

 

29. Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins, microbes and other pathogens?
30. Keratinocytes
31. Melanocytes
32. Adipocytes
33. Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
34. Tactile (Merkel) cells

 

 

 

30. Fingerprints left on things we touch are associated with our __________.
31. dermal papillae
32. dermal connective tissue
33. stratum basale
34. subcutaneous tissue
35. subcutaneous adipose

 

 

31. Calluses or corns are the result of accelerated multiplication by ___________.
32. melanocytes
33. keratinocytes
34. fibroblasts
35. tactile cells
36. red blood cells

 

 

 

32. The __________ is absent from most epidermis.
33. stratum basale
34. stratum spinosum
35. stratum granulosum
36. stratum lucidum
37. stratum corneum

 

 

 

33. Leather is made of the __________ layer of the dermis.
34. areolar
35. keratin
36. reticular
37. collagen
38. papillary

 

 

 

34. The hypodermis is characterized by an abundance of which tissue?
35. Statified squamous epithelium
36. Smooth muscle
37. Nervous tissue
38. Adipose tissue
39. Dense irregular connective tissue

 

 

 

 

35. The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is __________.
36. pallor
37. albinism
38. erythema
39. hematoma
40. jaundice

 

 

 

36. The reddish color of the skin of the lips is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?
37. Hemoglobin
38. Myoglobin
39. Melanin
40. Carotene
41. Keratin

 

 

 

 

37. Which skin color is most likely to result from anemia?
38. Pallor
39. Erythema
40. Hematoma
41. Albinism
42. Jaundice

 

 

 

38. Increased bilirubin levels cause a skin discoloration called __________.
39. erythema
40. jaundice
41. pallor
42. bronzing
43. cyanosis

 

 

39. Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in ___________.
40. UV radiation exposure
41. the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood
42. the quantity of melanin produced
43. the number of melanocytes
44. the number of keratinocytes

 

 

 

40. A __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin.
41. hemangioma
42. mole
43. freckle
44. flexion line
45. friction ridge

 

 

 

41. A pilus is a __________.
42. hair
43. hair follicle
44. tiny muscle that moves a hair
45. sensory nerve fiber around the base of a hair
46. gland associated with a hair follicle

 

 

 

42. What type of hair is present prenatally and usually replaced by birth?
43. Lunule
44. Peach fuzz
45. Terminal hair
46. Vellus
47. Lanugo

 

 

43. Blood vessels in the __________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition.
44. bulb
45. root
46. shaft
47. dermal papilla
48. medulla

 

 

 

44. The base where a hair follicle originates in the skin is known as the __________.
45. Hair bulb
46. Hair root
47. Shaft
48. Medulla
49. Cuticle

 

 

 

45. The contraction of the piloerector muscles (pilomotor muscle or arrector pili) in humans causes __________.
46. hairs to stand on end, trapping an insulating layer of warm air next to the skin
47. generation of heat to raise the body temperature
48. hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger
49. hairs to stand on end with no apparent function
50. increased ability to feel pain

 

 

 

46. A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order?
47. Anagen, telogen, and catagen
48. Anagen, catagen, and telogen
49. Catagen, anagen, and telogen
50. Catagen, telogen, and anagen
51. Telogen, anagen, and catagen

 

 

 

 

47. Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a(an) __________.
48. hair follicle
49. vellum
50. pilus
51. bulb
52. shaft

 

 

 

48. Excessive hairiness is called __________.
49. telogenism
50. anagenism
51. catagenism
52. alopecia
53. hirsutism

 

 

 

 

49. The narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of a nail is called the __________.
50. eponychium
51. lunule
52. nail plate
53. nail body
54. nail root

 

 

 

50. What is the white opaque “moon” often found at the proximal end of a fingernail called?
51. Free edge
52. Nail body
53. Eponychium
54. Lunule
55. Nail root

 

 

 

 

51. Variations in hair color arise from differing amounts of __________.
52. collagen and elastic filaments
53. keratin and melanin
54. carotene and hemoglobin
55. carotene and collagen
56. eumelanin and pheomelanin

 

 

 

52. Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail.
53. nail plate
54. nail fold
55. eponychium
56. hyponychium
57. nail matrix

 

 

 

 

53. The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles.
54. merocrine sweat
55. apocrine sweat
56. sebaceous
57. ceruminous
58. eccrine sweat

 

 

 

54. Secretions from __________ glands contribute to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin.
55. mammary
56. ceruminous
57. sebaceous
58. apocrine sweat
59. merocrine sweat

 

 

 

55. __________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal.
56. Sebum
57. Cerumen
58. Sweat
59. Scents
60. Mucus

 

 

 

56. Looking at a slide of axillary skin under the microscope, you notice the presence of __________ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp.
57. merocrine
58. apocrine
59. sebaceous
60. ceruminous
61. perspiration

 

 

57. Which cutaneous glands are concerned with cooling the body?
58. Ceruminous glands
59. Sebaceous glands
60. Merocrine glands
61. Apocrine glands
62. Exothermic glands

 

 

 

58. The __________ glands are a source of sex pheromones.
59. ceruminous
60. merocrine
61. mammary
62. sebaceous
63. apocrine

 

 

 

 

59. Mammary glands are modified __________ glands that develop within the female breasts.
60. merocrine
61. apocrine
62. ceruminous
63. sebaceous
64. eccrine

 

 

 

60. Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer?
61. Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum
62. Stratum basale and stratum corneum
63. Stratum spinosum and stratum basale
64. Stratum granulosum and stratum spinosum
65. Stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum

 

 

 

 

61. The “ABCD rule” for recognizing early signs of malignant melanoma refers to the following characteristics of the lesion:
62. asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter
63. asymmetry, brightness, color, and diameter
64. aspect, brightness, color, and distance
65. aspect, border irregularity, color, and distance
66. area, border irregularity, color, and density

 

 

 

62. The least common, but most deadly, type of skin cancer is __________.
63. basal cell carcinoma
64. squamous cell carcinoma
65. melanoma
66. skin lymphoma
67. skin sarcoma

 

 

 

 

63. Basal cell carcinoma initially affects cells of the stratum __________.
64. spinosum
65. germinativum
66. corneum
67. basale
68. lucidum

 

 

 

64. __________ burns involve the epidermis, all of the dermis, and often some deeper tissue.
65. First-degree
66. Second-degree
67. Third-degree
68. Partial-thickness
69. Malignant

 

 

 

 

65. The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is __________.
66. fluid loss
67. eschar
68. heat loss
69. pain
70. infection

 

 

 

66. The skin is a barrier to all of the following except __________.
67. metals such as mercury
68. infectious organisms
69. water
70. UV rays

 

 

 

 

67. In whom are mammary glands found?
68. In lactating females
69. In lactating and non-lactating females
70. In non-lactating females
71. In non-lactating females and males

 

 

 

Chapter 07

Bone Tissue

 

 

True / False Questions

 

1. Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones.

 

 

2. A vertebra is considered an irregular bone.

 

 

3. A radiograph (X-ray) of a child’s hand will show epiphyseal lines.

 

 

4. The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.

 

 

5. Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.

 

6. Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

 

 

7. Osteoid tissue is similar to bone except for a lack of minerals.

 

 

8. Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in young adults.

 

 

9. Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth.

 

 

10. Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system.

 

 

 

 

11. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) binds to receptors on osteoblasts.

 

 

12. Hypercalcemia is rare, but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.

 

 

 

 

13. Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone.

 

 

14. Osteomalacia results in bone brittleness.

 

 

15. Osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature, which is called kyphosis.

 

 

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

16. Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?
17. Storage of calcium and phosphate ions
18. Storage of red blood cells
19. Providing support for most muscles
20. Protecting the brain
21. Protecting the spinal cord

 

 

 

17. Osseous tissue is a(an) ____________ tissue.
18. connective
19. epithelial
20. dense regular
21. dense irregular
22. reticular

 

 

 

18. Which of the following tissues is not found as part of a long bone?
19. Osseous tissue
20. Nervous tissue
21. Adipose tissue
22. Cartilage
23. Transitional epithelium

 

 

 

19. The center cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is called the __________.
20. marrow cavity
21. central canal
22. nutrient foramen
23. canaliculus
24. epiphysis

 

 

 

20. The thin layer of compact bone that separates an adult’s epiphysis from the diaphysis is called the __________.
21. periosteum
22. metaphysis
23. growth plate
24. epiphyseal line
25. diaphyseal line

 

 

 

21. The cortex of the long bone’s diaphysis is made of _________.
22. marrow
23. compact bone
24. spongy bone
25. dense regular connective tissue
26. articular cartilage

 

 

22. The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the __________.
23. epiphysis
24. diaphysis
25. articular cartilage
26. periosteum
27. endosteum

 

 

 

23. A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the __________.
24. epiphysis; diaphysis
25. diaphysis; epiphysis
26. compact bone; spongy bone
27. periosteum; endosteum
28. endosteum; periosteum

 

 

 

 

24. Bone-forming cells are called __________.
25. osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells
26. osteoblasts
27. osteoclasts
28. osteocytes
29. osteons

 

 

 

25. When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________.
26. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts
27. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
28. osteoblasts; osteocytes
29. osteocytes; osteoclasts
30. osteocytes; osteoblasts

 

 

 

 

26. The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________, and they contain __________.
27. canaliculi; osteoblasts
28. osteons; stem cells
29. lacunae; osteocytes
30. lacunae; osteoclasts
31. central canals; osteocytes

 

 

 

27. Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix?
28. Proteoglycans
29. Glycoproteins
30. Collagen
31. Hydroxyapatite
32. Glycosaminoglycans

 

 

28. Spicules and trabeculae are found in __________.
29. compact bone
30. bone matrix
31. yellow bone marrow
32. red bone marrow
33. spongy bone

 

 

 

29. Red bone marrow does not contain __________.
30. myeloid tissue
31. yellow bone marrow
32. hemopoietic tissue
33. white blood cells
34. red blood cells

 

 

30. The hardness of bone comes from __________, whereas __________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.
31. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins
32. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals
33. glycoproteins; proteoglycans
34. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate
35. proteins; collagen

 

 

 

31. The plasma membrane of __________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings, whereas __________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes.
32. osteoclasts; osteocytes
33. osteocytes; osteoclasts
34. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
35. osteoblasts; osteocytes
36. osteocytes; osteogenic cells

 

 

32. What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)?
33. Periosteum
34. Hemopoietic tissue
35. Red bone marrow
36. Yellow bone marrow
37. Compact bone

 

 

 

33. Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?
34. Osteoblasts
35. Osteoclasts
36. Osteocytes
37. Osteogenic cells
38. Stem cells

 

 

34. It is common to find __________ in compact bone, but they are not seen in spongy bone.
35. lamellae
36. osteoclasts
37. lacunae
38. central canals
39. osteocytes

 

 

 

35. Intramembranous ossification produces the __________.
36. irregular bones of the vertebrae
37. flat bones of the skull
38. long bones of the limbs
39. short bones of the wrist
40. short bones of the ankle

 

 

 

36. In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone.
37. embryonic mesenchyme
38. fibrous membranes
39. hyaline cartilage
40. transitional epithelium
41. fibrocartilage

 

 

 

37. The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
38. metaphysis
39. primary ossification center
40. secondary ossification center
41. osteoid tissue
42. epiphyseal line

 

 

38. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the __________.
39. primary ossification center
40. secondary ossification center
41. primary bone marrow
42. secondary bone marrow
43. epiphyseal plate

 

 

 

39. Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of the metaphysis.
40. reserve cartilage
41. cell proliferation
42. cell hypertrophy
43. calcification
44. bone deposition

 

 

40. Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as __________.
41. intramembranous ossification
42. endochondral ossification
43. interstitial growth
44. appositional growth
45. metaphysical growth

 

 

 

41. Bone elongation is a result of __________.
42. cartilage growth
43. muscle growth
44. osseous tissue growth
45. fibrous membrane addition
46. dense irregular connective tissue addition

 

 

 

 

42. Wolff’s law of bone explains the effect of __________.
43. different diets on bone elongation
44. mechanical stress on bone remodeling
45. temperature on bone growth
46. age on bone thickening
47. sex on bone widening

 

 

 

43. A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are the __________.
44. elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate
45. epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line
46. primary and secondary ossification centers
47. fibrocartilage and articular cartilage
48. articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

 

 

44. The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________.
45. mineralization
46. mineral deposition
47. crystallization
48. resorption
49. ossification

 

 

 

45. Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition?
46. The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate.
47. Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption.
48. Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen.
49. Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid.
50. Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids.

 

 

46. Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________.
47. ATP
48. DNA
49. phospholipids
50. RNA
51. amino acids

 

 

 

47. Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________.
48. muscle contraction
49. exocytosis
50. blood clotting
51. DNA synthesis
52. communication among neurons

 

 

48. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
49. Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys
50. Stimulate osteoclast activity
51. Lower blood calcium
52. Promote calcitriol synthesis
53. Inhibit osteoblast activity

 

 

 

49. Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _________ is important to the deposition of bone.
50. growth hormone
51. testosterone
52. estrogen
53. calcitonin
54. calcitriol

 

 

 

 

50. Which of the following does not put women at risk for hypocalcemia?
51. Lactation
52. Pregnancy
53. Removal of the parathyroid glands
54. Removal of the thyroid gland
55. Lack of exposure to UV radiation

 

 

 

51. Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to __________.
52. calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption
53. calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion
54. parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity
55. growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity
56. thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion

 

 

 

 

52. Hypocalcemia can cause __________.
53. emotional disturbances
54. depression of the nervous system
55. muscle weakness
56. sluggish reflexes
57. muscle spasms

 

 

 

53. Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification, which means __________.
54. the solubility product has been reached
55. artery mineralization by osteoblasts
56. abnormal calcification of a tissue
57. accumulation of collagenous fibers in blood vessels
58. ossification of an entire blood vessel

 

 

 

 

54. If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect ___________.
55. an elevated level of osteoclast activity
56. an elevated level of osteoblast activity
57. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification
58. a rise in blood calcium concentration
59. increasingly brittle bones

 

 

 

55. A soft callus forms during ___________.
56. endochondral ossification
57. intramembranous ossification
58. bone growth at the metaphysis
59. the remodeling of bone
60. the healing of a fracture

 

 

 

 

56. Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of ___________, which would otherwise inhibit ____________.
57. dietary calcium; estrogen production
58. osteoblasts; osteoclast activity
59. estrogen; osteoclast activity
60. parathyroid hormone; osteocyte activity
61. exercise; osteoblast activity

 

 

 

57. A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a __________ fracture.
58. linear
59. pott
60. comminuted
61. greenstick
62. compound

 

 

58. The result of blood calcium and phosphate levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called __________ in children and __________ in adults.
59. osteomalacia; rickets
60. rickets; osteomalacia
61. osteoporosis; osteomalacia
62. osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma
63. osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

 

 

 

59. Bone protrudes through the skin in a fracture called __________.
60. complete
61. incomplete
62. closed
63. open
64. displaced

 

 

 

 

60. A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n) __________ fracture.
61. greenstick
62. open
63. closed
64. pathologic
65. displaced

 

 

 

61. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?
62. Bone remodeling  soft callus formation  hard callus formation  hematoma formation
63. Bone remodeling  hard callus formation  soft callus formation  hematoma formation
64. Hematoma formation  soft callus formation  hard callus formation  bone remodeling
65. Hematoma formation  hard callus formation  soft callus formation  bone remodeling
66. Soft callus formation  hard callus formation  hematoma formation  bone remodeling

 

 

 

62. Patches of fibrocartilage formed in the healing of a fracture are called __________, whereas the bony collar formed around the fracture is called __________.
63. fracture hematoma; granulation tissue
64. granulation tissue; soft callus
65. fracture hematoma; hard callus
66. granulation tissue; hard callus
67. soft callus; hard callus

 

 

 

63. The most common bone disease is __________.
64. osteomyelitis
65. osteoporosis
66. osteosarcoma
67. osteomalacia
68. rickets

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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